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Newsbyteblog: the blog of newsbyte regarding all things IT, free speech, copyright and patents and other things deemed interesting.

Saturday, April 30, 2005

Freedom of Speech; the paradigm (1)

- why everyone is for it, *exept* if... [fill in a reason] -

Even though I'm not a fan of the USA, I must agree they are, at least in this respect, more fair and consistent then almost all european countries. While I fully endorse anti-racism as my own worldview, I do not agree with any anti-racism laws that prohibits the mere expression of thoughts, EVEN when they are racist.

Freedom of speech is something that you can not (or at least, should not) make dependend on ones' own views, or else you have *no* freedom of speech. I mean, it's always easy to let others speak when you agree with it, but that's not the point of free speech; rather it's meant to let other people be heard too, even though you fully and utterly disagree with them.This argument is mostly lost in europe, where politicians somehow think they should muffle and forbid some speech they don't agree with and which may offend some ethnic or other group.

- Newsbyte




Exactly this topic was the focuspoint of a debate I had on slashdot, which begins like this:




"Even though I'm not a fan of the USA, I must agree they are, at least in this respect, more fair and consistent then almost all european countries."

Consistency should not be a goal on its own, or you get totalitarian situations. And I don't know whether it's more fair.

As they say: your rights end where someone else's rights begin. IMHO, inciting people to ignore this rule as far as certain groups of people are concerned can be seen as a first step to abandon that rule (at least in practice; in theory, that rule may still hold, but what use is it if it's largely ignored?), just like others argue that banning this kind of speech is (a first step towards)/(the same as) banning all free speech.

It's all a matter of trade-offs, and which trade-off you are more likely to accept depends a lot on history I think. I know I much prefer the European to the US system, but maybe unconsciously that is because my grandfather was captured as soldier and put on a train to a concentration camp? (although he managed to escape from the train, fortunately, or I wouldn't be here)

- Halo1




We disagree on the first paragraph already, then. I think laws SHOULD be consistent, and it should be a goal to make them consistent.Inconsistent laws lead to hypocritical laws (where, for instance, a law aplies to a white man differently then for a black man), and hypocritical laws inherently breed unfairness.Totalitarian states do not depend on the consistency of the laws, rather on the nature of those laws.

If laws induce and promote more freedom, even when being consistent, it is doubtfull it will lead to a totalitarian state where inconsistent laws wouldn't.I do understand your last point, and I certainly can understand your feelings in the matter, but I don't think the past should keep us from making rational and consistent laws.




"We disagree on the first paragraph already, then. I think laws SHOULD be consistent, and it should be a goal to make them consistent."

Of course laws should generally be consistent, but consistency itself should not be a goal on its own, because that leads to absurdity. For example, all humans are mammals, yet we treat them differently than other mammals in the law. Why? Because there are also fundamental differences with other mammals. The same thing can be argued about hate speech and other speech.

"I do understand your last point, and I certainly can understand your feelings in the matter, but I don't think the past should keep us from making rational and consistent laws."

I could similarly argue that the fear that a ban on hate speech will automatically lead to a ban on all free speech is also an irrational fear which is held by many (mainly American) people, probably due to their history. No single human can be purely objective.




"Of course laws should generally be consistent, but consistency itself should not be a goal on its own, because that leads to absurdity. For example, all humans are mammals, yet we treat them differently than other mammals in the law."

I think you are confusing 'consistency' with 'generalisation' a bit.

"I could similarly argue that the fear that a ban on hate speech will automatically lead to a ban on all free speech is also an irrational fear which is held by many (mainly American) people, probably due to their history."

That can be, but I wasn't argumenting it out of that reason (fear). In fact, it would fail to explain why, embedded in the history of europe, I would agree with them, especially as I'm rather anti-USA (even if I say so myself ;-). I doubt if it wasn't for the fact that I can see it truelly *is* more of a rational argumentation, I would ever have supported their view.

But, despite my dislikings and their fear as possible (sub)reason, I think they are right, on this particular issue, for the reasons I mentionned in above posts.Also, even on itself your argument sounds a bit contradictory. If you ban 'hate speech' you already banned some form of speech, and then it becomes rather irrelevant if there is no reason to fear that 'all' speech will be forbidden.

I mean, if the government of china forbids speech that speaks negative about them, it does not mean they will forbid 'all' free speech; in fact, it's quite reasonably to assume they will always allow free speech that will speak positive about them.So, it could be deemed 'irrational', following your reasoning, that the chinese would held the believe that 'all' free speech would end. Yet, why would almost anyone (including you, presumably), see this as an infringement of free speech nonetheless?

Because, ultimately, free speech is not purely meant for those opinions that you agree with, or else you don't have free speech at all.

It's not even meant to exclude those opinions you really, really, *really* do not agree with, and think they are vile, irrational, repugnant, etc....because, then again, you don't have free speech.

The (in)consistency does not lay in the premisse one takes on that, however, but rather in reversing (and implementing) the exact same reasoning, but then to oneself. If the ultra-right ever came to a political majority, and would (make laws that) deem anti-racism and critique on their policy as being hateful or offensive... would you think it were a good argument that you couldn't speak out against racism because, then? In both cases it would be 'hate speech' (as defined by law)...thus where would that leave you, with your above reasoning? Unless you accept that, in that case, they are fully entitled to forbid anti-racism speech too, you would be higly hypocritical.




"Also, even on itself your argument sounds a bit contradictory. If you ban 'hate speech' you already banned some form of speech, and then it becomes rather irrelevant if there is no reason to fear that 'all' speech will be forbidden."

"Some form of speech" is always banned, like the age-old example of yelling fire in a crowded theatre.

"I mean, if the government of china forbids speech that speaks negative about them, it does not mean they will forbid 'all' free speech; in fact, it's quite reasonably to assume they will always allow free speech that will speak positive about them."

As I explained before, the big difference between hate speech and all other forms of speech (including criticising a government), is that it calls for taking away other people's fundamental rights simply because they have an arbitrary characteristic in common.

"So, it could be deemed 'irrational', following your reasoning, that the chinese would held the believe that 'all' free speech would end. Yet, why would almost anyone (including you, presumably), see this as an infringement of free speech nonetheless?"

Because hate speech is something entirely different.

"Because, ultimately, free speech is not purely meant for those opinions that you agree with, or else you don't have free speech at all. It's not even meant to exclude those opinions you really, really, *really* do not agree with, and think they are vile, irrational, repugnant, etc....because, then again, you don't have free speech."

It has nothing to do with agreeing or not agreeing with opinions, it's much more fundamental then that.

"If the ultra-right ever came to a political majority, and would (make laws that) deem anti-racism and critique on their policy as being hateful or offensive... would you think it were a good argument that you couldn't speak out against racism because, then?"

If a government wants to suppress its people, having absolute free speech will not help you. They'll brand you a terrorist, dangerous to the public/state, whatever. It's very naive to think that absolute free speech will somehow protect you from that, just like thinking that the right bear arms can protect you from the government.

And I hope you will not try to take this argument to absurdum and claim that you can use this argument to justify all kinds of limitations to public freedom, because that's not true and not what I mean. I simply mean that you cannot use this argument to justify allowing hate speech, because it's bogus. On the one hand it won't help you one bit against an extremist government, and on the other hand you get hate speech on top of it.

And this again leads to the "consistency" argument: laws are not designed with the sole goal of being consistent, but because of some social or economic need. If you think the need for absolute free speech is more valuable to society as a whole than the fact that hate speech can be free spread, then you keep hate speech legal. Otherwise you don't. In Europe (most?) governments chose for the latter option, in the US they chose the former.




""Some form of speech" is always banned, like the age-old example of yelling fire in a crowded theatre."

LOL...I KNEW you were going to come up with that ;-) I almost was going to write about it even on beforhand, but I figured it would take me too far...yet, it seems I'll have to anyways, after all.

The 'yelling fire in a theatre' is not pure speech, as it does not convey any thoughts, but rather ellicits an immediate (panic-)response. This can be easily shown by the fact that sounding a fire-alarm will have the exact same effect; yet one can hardly argument a fire-alarm is exercising free speech.The argument in the analogy is therefor unvalid, and I'm rather amused by it popping up like clockwork, as a counterargument to 'absolute' freedom of speech; it is, in fact, not really a matter of free speech.

"As I explained before, the big difference between hate speech and all other forms of speech (including criticising a government), is that it calls for taking away other people's fundamental rights simply because they have an arbitrary characteristic in common."

No, it's making an artificial difference, and then claiming it is distinctive and 'grave' enough to treat it differently from other speech. I do not agree that the difference is fundamental, and even if I would, it would still not entitle you to the conclusion it should be inherently treated differently. Racist claim the color of one's skin is a fundamental difference too: could they thus, muffle some form of free speech?

I hope you get my point: your starting premise is already doubtfull. If the chinese government thinks the stability of the state and government is 'fundamental', following your reasoning, it can treat attacks (even as speech) on the government and state differently from any other speech.

You see? Once again, there is no difference in reasoning.You simply take your opinion as 'fundamental' while it is not. There is no reason, on itself, why calling for taking away rights that some call fundamental, would entitle anyone to muffle up free speech any more then any other person that thinks calling to take away the rights of a government is a fundamental difference in regard to other forms of speech.

"Because hate speech is something entirely different."

No, it's claimed to be entirely different. As I've said, the chinese government can well be of the opinion, that speech against the government is 'entirely different' then the rest of free speech.

Unless you claim universalism on the matter - which would be odd, because if it were truelly universal, the USA wouldn't allow said 'hate speech'. Yet, seen that it has a whole other viewpoint on it, one can hardly claim it's universal or fundamental.

"If a government wants to suppress its people, having absolute free speech will not help you."

I agree, but that was not my point. It's not whether it would protect me from a totalitarian regime or not, but simply the question if you would agree with the reasoning, *then*. If you don't, then the reasoning you used has no validity (if you don't want to be hypocritical, that is).

And while you claim I cannot use this, I'm inclined to use it anyway :-): a totalitarian regime could forbid whatever speech or freedom it (dis)liked, if it had full power and control. This is not an argument against allowing true free speech, while it still would be a distinctive characteristic that would devide closeminded totalitarian governments from openminded democracies.

"And this again leads to the "consistency" argument: laws are not designed with the sole goal of being consistent, but because of some social or economic need."

That is correct, and that's what's wrong with the current legal system. :-) I would argue that there is no inherent dichotomy between the two, and, if (a) law(s) can't be consistent without still having a beneficial influence on the social or economic need, then that social or economic is doubtfull to be in accordance with justice.

And ultimately, laws should above all consider if they are just, not if they fill a social or economical need.Now, I'm fully aware that that isn't the way it's always done, but that does not mean we should not strive to continiously make them more consistent and just. So, in a way, making laws consistent is (or at least should be) a goal, and your fear that they will become absurd because of that is unvalid, because it's not the consistency that makes it absurd, but the (content of) the/some laws itself. If laws become absurd because of it being consistent, then there is something wrong with the law, not the consistency. It may be, for instance, that the law is too much generalising (as in you mammal example); in that case, one should adapt the law and refine it, not make it inconsistent.




"The 'yelling fire in a theatre' is not pure speech, as it does not convey any thoughts, but rather ellicits an immediate (panic-)response. This can be easily shown by the fact that sounding a fire-alarm will have the exact same effect; yet one can hardly argument a fire-alarm is exercising free speech."

Well, I guess it shows I generally manage to stay out of the hornet's nest this kind of discussion always is. Maybe a better example is slander/libel. Even if you are 100% convinced something is true, if you can't prove it and it harms someone else (indirectly), you are not allowed to publicise it.

"As I explained before, the big difference between hate speech and all other forms of speech (including criticising a government), is that it calls for taking away other people's fundamental rights simply because they have an arbitrary characteristic in common.

No, it's making an artificial difference, and then claiming it is distinctive and 'grave' enough to treat it differently from other speech."

No, it's because it is about the same rights the whole free speech stuff is about. With "fundamental" rights I meant the basic human rights (right to live, right to freedom of religion, right to food, ...). When these rights conflict or are threatened to be abolished, then you get discussions like the one we are in. There's nothing artificial about that.

"That is correct, and that's what's wrong with the current legal system. :-) I would argue that there is no inherent dichotomy between the two, and, if (a) law(s) can't be consistent without still having a beneficial influence on the social or economic need, then that social or economic is doubtfull to be in accordance with justice."

It simply depends what you want to be consistent with. You want pure consistency within the law, I prefer consistency between the general idea of protecting society/economy and the law. We only have laws because there is a society and to keep that society functioning.

You can have great theoretical ideas of how to make an idealised "clean and pure" juridical system, but society does not work that way. Humans are not perfectly predictable or without exceptions, so the law can't be that way either... unless you are in a totalitarian system, where people are supposed to adapt to the needs of the law/those in power, instead of that the laws are adapted to the needs of society.

"Now, I'm fully aware that that isn't the way it's always done, but that does not mean we should not strive to continiously make them more consistent and just."

This again depends on what you consider just (another quite subjective term). Some people find it just that rich people pay along to help cater for the poorer, others think this is very unjust.
So, in a way, making laws consistent is (or at least should be) a goal, and your fear that they will become absurd because of that is unvalid, because it's not the consistency that makes it absurd, but the (content of) the/some laws itself. Law can also become absurd as a consequence of striving for consistency without taking into account why exactly there was/is an inconsistency in the first place. Although this is by no means always the case, it's quite possible that there was a very good reason for an inconsistency.

Consistency is not the highway to heaven. It's a good (and important) guide when making laws, but e.g. the whole debate about the directive on software patents in Europe (where they also want to treat "inventions in all fields of technology" in a consistent way) shows that if you treat it as a goal of its own, you miss a whole lot of other important stuff.




"Well, I guess it shows I generally manage to stay out of the hornet's nest this kind of discussion always is."

;-)

I appreciate your posts, however. IIRC, I have been impressed by some good posts of you before. In fact, if I'm not mistaken, you live in the same country as me, and we've emailed eachother before.

"Maybe a better example is slander/libel. Even if you are 100% convinced something is true, if you can't prove it and it harms someone else (indirectly), you are not allowed to publicise it."

Note, however, that in many countries it isn't forbidden to say it on itself, it's just that you have to prove it afterwards, if you are sued. Unless clear harm can be demonstrated, as a *direct* result of the 'slander/libel' (and it's demonstrated to be just that), I would do away with those laws too. (Well, actually adapt them, thus). It's noteworthy that on this issue too, many countries have a far more tolerant policy then in our country, so there is nothing fundamental about it.

"No, it's because it is about the same rights the whole free speech stuff is about. With "fundamental" rights I meant the basic human rights (right to live, right to freedom of religion, right to food, ...). When these rights conflict or are threatened to be abolished, then you get discussions like the one we are in. There's nothing artificial about that."

I already answered that one, really. The whole point that you make depends on what you consider to be basic human rights. What constitues a 'basic human right', how much basic one may make it, and how much I myself may agree with it or not, is ultimately only an opinion too.

There are dictators and right-wingers enough that have a whole other opinion of basic rights. So saying "it should be so, because it is fundamental", is nothing more then saying "it should be so, because in my opinion, it is a fundamental right". But then, we can go back to my example of the chinese government, and if that is of the opinion that the stability of the state is a 'fundamental right', then you can not argument against it. You may agree to it being a basic right or not, but that has no bearing on their opinion of it. So, I say, since opinions can differ, at least when you DO take an opinion, you should be consistent in it. Thus, if you are of the opinion 'hate speech' should be forbidden because you deem it (contrary to) a perceived fundamental right, you should also acknowledge that another person might equally forbid anti-racism, if he deems it (to be contrary to) a perceived fundamental right.

Many would disagree with that, however, making the reasoning and application hypocrite.If, however, one is of the opinion that free speech should be absolute, then you must agree that another person can make use of that absolute free speech too.

Well, I agree another person can use that. :-)

So, you see, consistency DOES have an intrinsic value.

"You want pure consistency within the law, I prefer consistency between the general idea of protecting society/economy and the law."

Ah yes, well, that was why I said there is no dichotomy between the two, even if some may portray it as such. You make it sound if you can not have the one without the other. I however, claim that you can protect society/economy, even when remaining consistent; the two are not mutually exclusive. If there IS a contradiction between the two in some instance, it's indicative that the law is bad, not that it should be less consistent.I sometimes feel that people think 'generalistation' and 'consistency' are the same things, while they are not, at all. Laws may be bad because they are (over)generalising, NOT because they are consistent.

Take you example of "all mamals should be treated equal' and then saying; you can't be consistent, because you treat animals different then humans. Well, yes, but is it a bad law because it's not consistent, or is it a bad law, bacause it was generalising? If you accept the law (in its content), then, yes, you should treat all mamals equal, and other laws should reflect that, and be consistent with that. If, however, you refine the law and say 'all humans have to be treated equally', then laws that treat animals diferently, are no longer inconsistent.

So, it is not the fault of consistency that a law is bad or good, rather it's the law itself. But if you deem a law to be 'right', then you have to be consistent in it, or you'll create unjustice and unfairness.

"You can have great theoretical ideas of how to make an idealised "clean and pure" juridical system, but society does not work that way."

That's why I said: "Now, I'm fully aware that that isn't the way it's always done, but that does not mean we should not strive to continiously make them more consistent and just."

;-)

"This again depends on what you consider just (another quite subjective term). Some people find it just that rich people pay along to help cater for the poorer, others think this is very unjust. "

'Just' is determined by people themselves, but they *should* indeed remain consistent, if they want to improve on their own 'justice'. If people think rich people should cater the poor, then they should do so, and those that think they don't, should not. As long as they remain consistent, you can not say one group of people is more 'unjust' then the other. If, however, they think they should, but they themselves don't (and vice versa), they are being inconsistent, and, even in their own worldview, unjust.

"Although this is by no means always the case, it's quite possible that there was a very good reason for an inconsistency."

No. The only reason why there are inconsistencies, is because laws are intrinsically bad (=they have contradictions within themselves), because they are elitist (=not followed by the populace, or against human nature), (over)generalising, or because they are rooted in irrational behaviour or bias. Unless one of those reasons is deemed 'a very good reason', I would refute that claim, thus.

It is true that laws can become absurd when they are followed consistently, but only because those laws fail in one of the above mentioned examples in the first place.




"I appreciate your posts, however. IIRC, I have been impressed by some good posts of you before. In fact, if I'm not mistaken, you live in the same country as me, and we've emailed eachother before."

You can easily find out who I am by searching for my real name. And the country I live in can also be found from my email address. Whether we mailed or not, I don't know.

"I already answered that one, really. The whole point that you make depends on what you consider to be basic human rights. What constitues a 'basic human right', how much basic one may make it, and how much I myself may agree with it or not, is ultimately only an opinion too"

Fortunately, basic human rights are not just what you, I or any dictator thinks they are. They've been thought about and then defined quite clearly [un.org]. But I suppose I'll now get another "I knew you were going to say that" reply and some reasons why you consider that document to be non-authorative.

"So, I say, since opinions can differ, at least when you DO take an opinion, you should be consistent in it. Thus, if you are of the opinion 'hate speech' should be forbidden because you deem it (contrary to) a perceived fundamental right, you should also acknowledge that another person might equally forbid anti-racism, if he deems it (to be contrary to) a perceived fundamental right."

As I said, this is not merely about my opinion. And article 30 of the above mentioned declaration nicely illustrates how racism and other hate speech goes against it, even though it also demands freedom of opinion and expression. And yet this document is quite consistent: it aims for protecting people, and therefore includes a clause for preventing abuse of one provision to get around another one. Both article 19 and article 30 are consistent with that goal, regardless of how one article may impose exceptions on the other.

"Ah yes, well, that was why I said there is no dichotomy between the two, even if some may portray it as such. You make it sound if you can not have the one without the other."

I am not a law scholar, but I am indeed extremely sceptical it's possible to make laws without any exceptions or special cases whatsoever that cater to society/economy as a whole. More on that at the end of this post.

"I however, claim that you can protect society/economy, even when remaining consistent; the two are not mutually exclusive."

Not in all cases, but I place more value on being good for society/economy than on being consistent. If you can combine the two: more power to you. But one should never sacrifice society in favour of consistency.

"If there IS a contradiction between the two in some instance, it's indicative that the law is bad, not that it should be less consistent."

Maybe all laws are bad and you are right. Before I accept that, I would like to see your proposal for a new law system that is entirely consistent without any exceptions whatsoever, and under which a free society could flourish. Certainly, the current laws are not perfect. But I do not believe all problems can be solved by having only consistent laws, nor am I sure that society as a whole would suddenly be that much better of if we only had purely consistent laws. I mean, theoretically it sounds nice, but I'm not sure how it would work out in practice.

If it's at all possible, you'll probably end up with a lot more laws than we now have, each for their extremely limited field without exceptions, so that the system would probably become a lot more complex as it is now. And special cases you didn't think of will probably always pop up, so you'll almost endlessly keep refactoring your laws.

Just like in programing you should not refactor endlessly, you have to draw a line somewhere: now it's been simplified enough, what still doesn't fit will be handled by special cases.




"Fortunately, basic human rights are not just what you, I or any dictator thinks they are. They've been thought about and then defined quite clearly. But I suppose I'll now get another "I knew you were going to say that" reply and some reasons why you consider that document to be non-authorative."

No, I'm only saying that when I actually knew you were going to say that, and this time, I didn't knew. I did went over with my thoughts before, however.Indeed, I do not consider it authorative, in the sense that it is somehow 'universal'.

I agree, as an individual, with the priciple(s) and with most 'basic rights' as described, but that is something else. What it boils down too, is that it represents the greatest common nominator that the majority of people held as an opinion (and agreed to) of what constitutes a basic right. I am quite sure they are thought of, quite extensively, by the best experts there are...but it still represents an opinion, even though a (presumed) generally accepted one.

Which brings us back to what I said about a country: while 'the majority' in an european country may consider the current 'racism laws' a good thing, it does not make it a universal or fundamental thing. When the majority would shift to right-wingers, the same reasoning could be applied by them to muffle our free speech up - and I mean not in the 'but they could do it anyways', but in the 'remaining within the same reasoning' way.

You counter that by argumenting it's not the same, because it's (not) about a human right. But those same basic human rights were developped and agreed on, according to criteria that were and are being accepted by the majority of people, within this timeframe. If right-wingers would become the majority of the world population, including all those experts that make authoritative books on what constitutes a basic right, then one could be sure the criteria and definition (and the basic rights themselves) would probably differ from what they are today.

So, 'basic human rights' are maybe deemed basic by most in our timeframe, but they certainly are not 'universal' in the strict sense. If the islam had dominated the world in the 20iest and 21st century, our basic human rights would probably be based on the teachings of the shariat, and might include some things that you wouldn't deem a basic human right.Ultimately, ALL rights are based on opinions.

"As I said, this is not merely about my opinion.[...]"

No, and I'm not alone with my opinion neither; but that doesn't amount to anything. Whether you or I are alone with our opinion or not; it still is an opinion.

Besides, what should china care if some article does not find the stabibilty of the state as fundamental, if they do? I mean, if a christian or islamic figure begins to site paragraphs out of the bible or koran, to show you what rights you have and what not, would you feel compelled to abide by it?Only if you deem those paragraphs and books to be right (or authorative) for yourself.

I tried your link but it didn't work when I klicked it, but, I'll assume that you are right and article 30 clearly and unmistakingly forbids 'hate speech', even when presented as pure speech, and not inticement.Well, that just proves my point, actually. I do not agree with that, then. Nor does the USA, in majority. And if the majority of the world, including those experts that thought so long about it, would see it the same way...well, what then? Article 30 would be scrapped or adapted, period. The authority it has is not carved in stone, nor is it truelly universal (meaning, of all places and times), it's only power is that which it has and is bestowed upon by people whome accept it.

"I am not a law scholar, but I am indeed extremely sceptical it's possible to make laws without any exceptions or special cases whatsoever that cater to society/economy as a whole. More on that at the end of this post."

You make, again, the mistake of thinking that consistency and a general rule-of-thumb are somehow intertwined. Being consistent can be catered to specific fields, AND to general area's, as long as, there too, it is being *used* consistently. I thought I made that clear in my example, that was in fact, yours, with the mammals. There is nothing impossible with making such a law consistent, but whether or not you want that law to be implemented (and that depends on the feasability of what you want to reach with that law).

"But one should never sacrifice society in favour of consistency."
There's the perceived dichotomy again. :-)

Society would adapt, as it always does, and not be destroyed or other doomthingies by more consistency in its laws. In fact, to some extend I would claim we partly DO sacrifice (at least in terms of justice) society because of inconsistencies.But I think we basically disagree on this issue.

Following your reasoning, the project I'm working on (Freenet) has the potential of 'sacrificing' society, where I see it as a great oportunity for society to renew itself and become something better. Both our opinions are, in a certain respect, worth equally as much (as an opinion, that is).

Only, yours could impose restrictions upon people, while my viewpoint will allow free speech for everyone. (btw, when I say 'you' I don't mean you personnally ;-)




"Indeed, I do not consider it authorative, in the sense that it is somehow 'universal'. "

Nevertheless they called it the "Universal Declaration of Human Rights", and for good reason.

"But those same basic human rights were developped and agreed on, according to criteria that were and are being accepted by the majority of people, within this timeframe. If right-wingers would become the majority of the world population, including all those experts that make authoritative books on what constitutes a basic right, then one could be sure the criteria and definition (and the basic rights themselves) would probably differ from what they are today. "

Well, as you note in that way everything is merely opinion, including you supposedly basic right of unfettered freedom of expression (which I consider, in your frame set, to be an over-generalisation). I'm not sure how this validates your point in anyway, or makes my opinion hypocrite as you've tried to make me say two or three times already in this discussion.

The laws that rule a society are per definition conventions that are agreed upon. And these rules should be debated on their merits, not only on whether or not they are all 100% consistent. I really don't understand why you seem to think this perceived consistency is pretty much the most important thing and why all the rest is hypocrite. I'm not even convinced that the banning of hate speech as it is done in e.g. de Universal Declaration of Human Rights is somehow inconsistent with at the same time guaranteeing freedom of opinion and expression in the first place.

Social sciences simply don't work with pure logic, strict consistency etc. There are a bunch of people who argue and then get a general consensus, based on historic background etc (as I remarked in one of my first messages afaik). You cannot approach it from a purely rational point, because then you are arguing in the void and based on false premises (namely that social law is or should be created out of nothing based on some consistent rules of logic).

You start from society, make some rules and only then try to get them consistent while still meaning the same thing (and if you can do that: wow, fantastic, great!). Forcing society into a different ruleset simply because you want consistent rules (and before you reply with the same thing again: no, I do not think that consistency per definition leads to different rules) because you are convinced that will make a better new world for all without any backup for that: no, thank you.

Changing the world or society does not work like that.

"I tried your link but it didn't work when I klicked it, but, I'll asume that you are right and article 30 clearly and unmistakingly forbids 'hate speech', even when presented as pure speech, and not inticement."

Strange, I just tried it again and it works fine here. Anyway, here's article 19:

Everyone has the right to freedom of opinion and expression; this right includes freedom to hold opinions without interference and to seek, receive and impart information and ideas through any media and regardless of frontiers.

And here's article 30:
Nothing in this Declaration may be interpreted as implying for any State, group or person any right to engage in any activity or to perform any act aimed at the destruction of any of the rights and freedoms set forth herein. It does not say anything about hate speech, it just forbids the use of any rights granted by the declaration to be used for attempts to destroy other people's rights stemming from that declaration.

"Following your reasoning, the project I'm working on (Freenet) has the potential of 'sacrificing' society, where I see it as a great oportunity for society to renew itself and become something better."

I guess you mean the fact that it can be used to anonymously spread hate speech? So can the Internet without Freenet, and plenty of other technologies. Technology has exactly nothing to do with this debate as far as I'm concerned.

Arguments like "we will break society so it can reinvent itself" are quite weak in my opinion. Maybe you need such a justification for yourself, maybe you don't, but I don't really care for that kind of meta-hippy talk.

Only, yours could impose restrictions upon people, while my viewpoint will allow free speech for everyone. And that is, to use a favorite phrasing of yours, a false premise. Unfettered hate speech also results in restrictions on people's rights, namely on the recipients of that hate speech. It's not as black and white as you try to paint it.




"Well, as you note in that way everything is merely opinion, including you supposedly basic right of unfettered freedom of expression (which I consider, in your frame set, to be an over-generalisation)."

That's very true, and that's what I've been trying to convey. Whether you call it universal or not, it is not. Something that is truelly universal would be something that can be found back in any time, in any society. There are some examples which may be eligible, but 'hate speech' is not one of them.

It is, therefor, not universal, nor fundamental (or basic).Freedom of expression does not hold it's power from that sort of 'basic right' neither, as I've said before. I claim the position of that is stronger, because it is more consistent, not that it is deemed a basic right by some ninkempoops who have thought long about it, and decided it's universal.

"And these rules should be debated on their merits, not only on whether or not they are all 100% consistent."

Ofcourse they should be debated on their merrits...but the merrits are also derived from the fact if they are consistent or not. That's what I've been saying: 'bad' laws are not bad because of the consistency, they are bad because of their content. If you see inconsistencies, it's an indicator that something is wrong with the law.

"So can the Internet without Freenet, and plenty of other technologies."

Not anonimously. The big factor of difference is, that with freenet there is no way to put the genie in the bottle. You can not forbid any sort of free speech, which is contrary to anything tried as yet, including the regular Net.

"Arguments like "we will break society so it can reinvent itself" are quite weak in my opinion."

They are as weak or as strong as saying that it will sacrifice society. :-)

"Unfettered hate speech also results in restrictions on people's rights, namely on the recipients of that hate speech."

Speech is speech; it doesn't alter the factual acts, as long as it remain speech and not actions. To claim speech should be forbidden when it offends a perceived basic right, or even a mere feeling of offense, like some people are claiming, is ridiculous. Your claim is , in essence, not correct: unfettered hate speech, as long as it remains speech, does NOT actually restrict rights of people. Freedom of speech does not oblige anyone to agree with it, to listen to it, to act on it, etc. Clairly, the level of restriction, even if you would take it there is one, is far less then the restriction imposed by racism-laws that plainly forbid certain forms of speech.

One can not possibly claim that allowing more speech is restricting more then not allowing some speech, because in the first case, both can argue and debate and use the free speech, while the latter only reserves the right of speech to one group.




"Freedom of expression does not hold it's power from that sort of 'basic right' neither, as I've said before. I claim the position of that is stronger, because it is more consistent, not that it is deemed a basic right by some ninkempoops who have thought long about it, and decided it's universal."

Your perceived consistency does not make social positions any stronger. Social laws grow out of society, not out of some perceived consistency in logic.

"Not anonimously. The big factor of difference is, that with freenet there is no way to put the genie in the bottle. You can not forbid any sort of free speech, which is contrary to anything tried as yet, including the regular Net. "

I think you're giving yourself too much credit. Anonymous proxies, open news servers, freebie websites... Once something is out on the Internet, you already cannot put the genie back in the bottle. Just ask the MPAA how successful they were of getting DeCSS wiped from the Internet. You may make it even more easy, but there are no fundamental changes.

"Unfettered hate speech also results in restrictions on people's rights, namely on the recipients of that hate speech. Speech is speech; it doesn't alter the factual acts, as long as it remain speech and not actions."

That's the theory, yes. But you can't be so naive to think that whatever you say has no consequences at all. Just like yelling fire --even though it may not be pure speech-- also has consequences, and is banned for those consequences; you are claiming that the consequences can never be so bad that it can be used as justification to prohibit some kind of speech. Fine, that may be your opinion. But calling everyone who thinks that is not the case "a hypocrite" is not very convincing to support your stance.

The line for me is exactly how article 30 of the UDHR described it. You can have your free speech, as long as you do not try to use it to limit other people's basic rights. You can of course keep arguing out of the void that there is some ultimate principle somewhere out there that states that allowing all free speech is always more consistent than not (regardless of how this may be inconsistent with your goal of getting a well functioning society and of how you can argue based on the past in which ways exactly this can happen), and that regardless what kind of arguments I bring in, you will not accept any kind of limitation to that because you do not accept that social laws with a reason can overrule this ultimate principle of truth, but then please say so.

This is getting very tiring and totally unproductive as far as I'm concerned, since you discard all arguments with "everything is an opinion". I have news for you: that's exactly how societies come to their rules, and that is exactly the justification that is needed. Rules are made by society according to a society's opinion. You may not find this consistent, logical, pure or basic in anyway, but that's per definition what a society is: "The relationship of men to one another when associated in any way; companionship; fellowship; company".

The rules that govern those relations are consequentially made by society as well. You may not like those rules, but if you try to impose other rules thinking that you know it better, then you get situations like Mao in China etc. I do not know of any place in the world where rules were imposed on society with the result that society suddenly functioned a whole lot better. Even in the French revolution, it was society that chose the new rules.

So society can change, and so can the rules. It's indeed even possible that one day the UDHR will be gone. But until you give any social reason as to why the rules in that declaration are somehow harming society as a whole, I don't think you have any ground to discard them as "merely opinions of no value". Simply saying "They are not basic rights. Period." is too easy a cop out, and I'm not sure why you want to "debate" with people like that (except to wear them out, maybe).

You have your dogmatic position and are not accepting any arguments against it, because your postion is not based on anything (not because you haven't thought about it, but because there simply are no basics according to you, only opinions of no value and some principle of consistency that totally ignores the social reality), so they can also not be shown wrong in your view.

One can not possibly claim that allowing more speech is restricting more then not allowing some speech, because in the first case, both can argue and debate and use the fre speech, while the latter only reserves the right of speech to one group. Yeah, you try to organise a debate between the KKK and the Black Panthers. Is it really so hard to understand that hate speech has absolutely nothing to do with debate? If anything, it prevents debates, because it's intended exactly to avoid debates, to stop people thinking about something and to get them so agitated to make sure they won't think any further about it.

Anyway, this will be the last message I will post in this thread. I can just as well argue with a mathematician about whether it really is possible to draw a straight line between any two points, and only one at that [bymath.com]. If you do not want to accept that social rules should come from society (and that each society has the right to make its own rules based on its experiences) because then they aren't necessarily "basic" or "consistent in your view, then that is it I guess.




It is becoming tiresome, indeed. While you perceive my posts as being dogmatic and not open to arguments, I rather see yours as increasingly so. I try to give arguments and counterarguments in every post, while you respond hardly to any of my questions or points.You say it's dogmatic that I regard rights, including 'basic human rights' as written down statements that express an opinion.

Well, then YOU answer it: do you think those rights do not reflect an opinion, but are somehow truelly universal in nature?

If they are, indeed, opinions, then you have to acknowledge that those opinions can change, agreed with that?

Well, then, I'll repeat my question:In the beginning, I've said that, if you say that 'hate speech' should be forbidden because you think it is wrong and against the law, then, if the right-wing would make a majority, they could equally well deem anti-racism wrong and make laws to forbid *that*.

My question then was: would you, in that case, accept that you couldn't speak about 'anti-racism' talk?You tried to counter that by saying it is based on a 'universal' concept/basic human right... but as I pointed out, those are just a consensus on what constitutes basic human rights within our timeframe. It merely pushes my question further, but it does not answer it.

If rightwingers would have a majority in the worldpopulace, including the experts that think about what those rights constitute, and in those fantastic articles they make a lot of changes, and they add a clause that it is a basic human right to forbid anyone from making anti-racism speech... then, anti-racism talk will be against a 'basic human right' as well, and thus, following your reasoning, you should/would accept that they shut ppl up if they talk about anti-racism.

If you would not accept that reasoning in that case however - because of your own bias towards anti-racism - even when it's the same reasoning you used to forbid racism-talk, *then* you would be hypocritical.

You are on your high horse, claiming I said you are a hypocrite, while I never did, which you would have noticed, if you read my posts carefully.Whether you are hypocrite or not, fully depends on you, and your stance and some few variables, such as: do you accept that opinions, laws and rights can change? Do you think 'basic human rights' do not reflect an opinion, but are somehow truelly universal in nature? Do you agree that you are bound by your OWN reasoning, even if that very same reasoning is, or would be, used to forbid you (when ultra-right would become the majority, for instance) to speak something you feel very strongly about, such as anti-racist speech?

Depending on these questions, you could or could not be a hypocrite, that is all I said and am saying.

You speak of consequences, but you know as well as I do, that people are responsible for their OWN deeds and actions. There has never been established a direct correlation, let alone a causality, between mere speech (not incitement or your fire-alarm example, thus) of one person, and the actions of others. Even in europe, courts have ruled that guilt-by-proxy in such a matter is not valid, and with reason. If you are not only going to hold the persons responsible that DO the illegal things, but also the persons who *might* have had an influence on their behaviour, even when it is only speech, then one can start suing everybody, really.

If courts would rule differently, then every media, including books and movies, that depicted or conveyed illegal or violent acts, could be forbidden, because it might lead to some people doing something that is illegal or damaging to somebody else. Luckily, people are deemed guilty for their actions, not their thoughts, or the expression of those thoughts on themselves (at least in the USA). For the latter, however, suddenly europe makes an exeption when it comes to 'racist speech', without giving any substantial reasons why this would merrit such a peculiar treatement.

Oh, yes, because it is against a 'basic right'...which isn't basic, but rather an opinion in the first place, but, even if it were, it does still not explain why 'racist speech' should be forbidden, while others are not. I mean...there are other 'basic human rights', no? Why isn't it forbidden to speak against those, then? 'Right of education' is one of them, I believe. Well, now, if I make a campaign, claiming kids should not get an education, I'm going against a 'basic right' too, right? And it might hurt kids too. Some dudes could even close or burn down schools, after hearing me speak.

So...why am I not forbidden to speak that?

Because, the reason given is bogus. It's not about it being a basic right or not, as you well know. The reason why 'racist speech' is forbidden, but all the rest not, even if it equally goes against 'basic human rights' is because europe is still holding itself hostage to the past. Nazism-history has given us a trauma which we still can't get rid off, and it keeps us chained in this sort of irrational behaviour and law-making, especially in this particular context.

THAT is the reason why only 'racist speech' is forbidden here, and nothing else, even if other speech goes against other 'basic human rights'.

That's why we try to forbid free speech in that context; in an attempt to make sure it never happens again. Seen the fact that, even with all the immermore draconian laws on racist speech and with all the attempts of clamping down on free speech in this regard, and making it illegal, the ultra-right-wing movement in europe is way bigger and stronger (and in general keeps getting stronger) in europe then in the USA, one can seriously doubt the wisdom of it all.

In the meantime, ofcourse, you are imposing your will on others, and limiting their freedom in a way you would not want to be limited yourself, (nor in a way we do with other things that are just the same, but does not involve racist speech - and thus making our system of justice more irratic), like when others would decide anti-racist speech, for example, is forbidden.

See part 2.

Saturday, April 23, 2005

Freedom of Speech: the paradigm (2)

- why everyone is for it, *exept* if... [fill in a reason] -


Despite my earlier comment of it being my last post, I've been doing research on what really constitutes left and right (left and right nowadays have little to do with human rights or racism, those are more properties of the axis [f2s.com] of authoritarian/fascist and libertarian/anarchist), on how the universal declaration of human rights actually came to be [paulwilliams.com] (it was not just a bunch of libertarian or anarchist people) and the history of the concept of human rights [universalrights.net] (you'll be happy to hear that the concept of human rights is indeed quite recent, that the UDHR originally a product of early 20th century European thinking and thus was not universal at all, but things evolved, as also the previous link notes). Of course they're not universal because they're called universal, it's more like the other way round (I'll reply to the argument "but what if the world was mainly ruled by Hitlers and Stalins" later).

I may reply later in detail to your last post, but I'm still convinced that your "hypocrisy test" poses a false dilemma (or at least presents a false conclusion) and that it is not possible to make good social rules by only looking at rational arguments, because the human nature and thus also society simply are not rational. There is this thing called a conscience that most people have, and simply factoring that out of rule making altogether because it's not exactly the same for everyone does not automatically give you good rules for well functioning society.

You may become the ultimate "impartialist" who can set aside all his own moral values and rules, but that does not mean the rules you end up with that way are rules that result in a well functioning society. Society grows, evolves and is per definition deeply affected what happened before. You call those ghosts from the parts and chains that prevent following the path to ultimate rational enlightenment, but others see it as learning from your mistakes and *attempting* (which obviously does not automatically mean succeeding) to prevent them from happening again. Therefore just discarding that

For example, the banning of hate speech in Europe and the inalienable right to have arms in the US are indeed examples of mainly symbolic rules as opposed to purely rational rules. But exactly this symbolism is very strong, and you cannot discard that as being irrelevant or "overrulable" purely in the name of impartial logic and consistency.

Just abolishing them (even in the name of rationality or enlightenment), would always be interpreted as a signal that the government doesn't want you to have weapons so they can better oppress you, or that the holocaust wasn't that bad after (or maybe even didn't happen). You may know that is not the case, but society just doesn't work that way. You can't manage it like it's a bunch of drones who simply follow the rules and do nothing more or nothing less, nor think outside the box. That's why I stand by my point that each society has the right to make its own rules based on its experiences, and why I think the absolute free speech in the US is exactly as justifiable (even though I don't agree with it) as the banning of hate speech in Europe.

- Halo1




I didn't make any conclusions, as of yet, so it may be a bit premature to call it false. On the other hand, it is rather clear what the inevitable conclusion would be, indeed, and I suspect that's why you are so reluctant to answer it.

Thus, I'll go further as if you gave one of two answers: yes and no.

Now, remember, the main argument you gave, was that it was against a basic human right. It is fairly trivial to demonstarte that that can't be the main reason at all, because speech that goes against other 'basic rights' is not being forbidden. And apart from that, basic human rights are, as we now can agree on, I hope (?), not universal, but rather based on opinions. Opinions change, we both agree on that also.

Therefor, in a hypothetical world, where right wingers rule with a majority and decide that 'anti-racism speech' should be forbidden and calling black people subhuman is a basic right, etc., it would follow that, in that case, it would be against a basic human right, and thus, you should agree they have the right to make it forbidden.

If you do accept and agree to that, then, for sure, you are not hypocritical.

We both now, however, that you (well, at least I) would never agree to such a thing, whether they have a majority, claim it's a basic right or make laws that forbid it.

Well...my point is, if we would feel we have the right to disregard it, even when it complies with the reasons given that you think allows for forbidding it, then why could another person today not feel the same about the current 'racism speech' laws?

If we, using the same reasoning, have the right to 'say' it, whether it is against a basic right or not, then so does he. If he doesn't, then so don't we.

Ofcourse, you could claim again consistency is not necessary, but then you are, in fact, purely saying: you can't say that, because it's my opinion you can't say that. As we both now, however, opinions as such (thus, without argumenting them and, indeed, using logic and consistency) are nothing more then just that; mere opinions. One opinion, on itself, isn't worth anything more then the next. Even if we are convinced our opinion is right, another person with a fully opposite opinion can be convinced *he* is right.

Now, my last point is, that facists and racists, as you yourself rightfully pointed out, would be the first to forbid speech that they seem as unallowable. Suppressing freedom of speech is THE sign of dictatorships. It boils down to saying: because I'm (or 'we', when they have majority) of the opinion that it can't be said, you may not say it.

Well, guess what, we are doing just the same.

That we do it out of reasons that we think, nay, are convinced is for the good of society does not make a distinctive difference, because ultra-rights might see it as a good thing for society too.

So, what IS the distinction, then? The only one remaining is this: that you allow freedom of speech. A facist state will never allow that, while a democratic one does (or at least can, as is proven by the USA).

I hope you see my point: making some part of free speech illegal makes us more facist and dictatorial, instead of more democratic, while it's just that, that we wanted to avoid.

- Newsbyte




"On the other hand, it is rather clear what the inevitable conclusion would be, indeed, and I suspect that's why you are so reluctant to answer it. "

Just a small nit: what your conclusion would be. I do not feel the least bit hypocrite about it. In fact, I think the other choice of simply blindly defending whatever the rules are and switching with them like a leave in the wind is actually hypocrite. I've simply been looking for arguments that can show you why I feel that way and why your conclusion does not hold.

"Now, remember, the main argument you gave, was that it was against a basic human right. It is fairly trivial to demonstarte that that can't be the main reason at all, because speech that goes against other 'basic rights' is not being forbidden."

And this is where the societies come into play. As I've said many times now already: you cannot construct social theories purely on rules of logic. If you would argue against education, people would probably think you're a looney and ignore you. If you managed to get a powerful movement, managed to grasp power for a while and forbid eduction to a lot of people that way, I'm quite sure that afterwards draconian measures would be taken to prevent that basic right (as pretty much the entire world, from authoritarian to libertarian, has agreed) from being taken away again.

"And apart from that, basic human rights are, as we now can agree on, I hope (?), not universal, but rather based on opinions."

Not just mere opinions like yours or mine, but opinions of a society that encompasses pretty much the entire world. The UDHR committee originally consisted of someone from the US, someone from France, someone from Lebanon and someone from China (you may call them all "left", but as I said in my previous post, left and right is meaningless in this context; it's libertarian/anarchist vs authoritarian/fascist in this debate).

It was later included and referred to in a lot of other conventions, treaties and covenants [universalrights.net] and many of its elements can be found back in religions, pre-existing laws/rules (such as the US Constitution), works from philosophers, ... This is not just some majority opinion, it is something that has grown out of human society as a whole (left, right, authoritarian, libertarian, ...), trying to define what makes us human, which rights must be guaranteed in order for people "to be able to be humans", all with the goal of encouraging dignity, peace, cooperation and respect for all.

The Preamble nicely explains where those rules come from and why they chose those particular rights:

"Whereas recognition of the inherent dignity and of the equal and inalienable rights of all members of the human family is the foundation of freedom, justice and peace in the world,

Whereas disregard and contempt for human rights have resulted in barbarous acts which have outraged the conscience of mankind, and the advent of a world in which human beings shall enjoy freedom of speech and belief and freedom from fear and want has been proclaimed as the highest aspiration of the common people,

Whereas it is essential, if man is not to be compelled to have recourse, as a last resort, to rebellion against tyranny and oppression, that human rights should be protected by the rule of law,

Whereas it is essential to promote the development of friendly relations between nations,

Whereas the peoples of the United Nations have in the Charter reaffirmed their faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the human person and in the equal rights of men and women and have determined to promote social progress and better standards of life in larger freedom,

Whereas Member States have pledged themselves to achieve, in cooperation with the United Nations, the promotion of universal respect for and observance of human rights and fundamental freedoms,

Whereas a common understanding of these rights and freedoms is of the greatest importance for the full realization of this pledge,

Now, therefore, [...] "

"Therefor, in a hypothetical world, where right wingers rule with a majority and decide that 'anti-racism speech' should be forbidden and calling black people subhuman is a basic right, etc., it would follow that, in that case, it would be against a basic human right, and thus, you should agree they have the right to make it forbidden. "

Again, this has nothing to do with right-wingers, but more with fascism (and yes, there are just as well left-winged people who lean very closely to fascism, such as Stalin). Fascism and authoritarian regimes in general exalt the nation and often race above the individual. They are in fact naturally opposed to human rights. They would not have social or historical evidence to show that their "rights" are foundations of peace and dignity. They would probably not even create such a thing in the first place.

A declaration of "rights" with other kinds of goals than the goals mentioned above, would simply no longer be a declaration of human rights, but then it would indeed be a rose by any other name (just like a directive to legalise software patents suddenly does not result in the prohibition of software patents by calling it a "directive on computer-implemented inventions"). You don't further the goals of peace and human dignity by explicitly giving people "the right to call black people sub-human", nor by forbidding other people to criticise discrimination.

In my opinion, you are starting from the false premise that the UDHR and all documents based on that (and thus reinforced its validity) are merely some (left-wing) opinions which can easily be refuted and which I simply use because they and the name of the charter they appear in come in very handy for me. They are not particularly left-wing (if anything, they are maybe humanist), they are very strongly argued, they came about by world-wide discussions, they are accepted in principle (though definitely not always in practice) pretty much all around the world, they are the result of hundreds of years of evolution and revolution, ...

"Well...my point is, if we would feel we have the right to disregard it, even when it complies with the reasons given that you think allows for forbidding it, then why could another person today not feel the same about the current 'racism speech' laws?"

First of all, see above. Secondly, of course another person (or group of persons, or even large group of persons) could feel like that, I never denied that. Neverthelss, anti hate-speech laws follow the same spirit as the goal of the evolved concept of human rights (even though you can disagree with the "implementation" of these principles in that form): they protect human dignity.

A "pro-racism" law does not promote the goals of these rules in any way. Absence of banning of hate speech (without promoting it) is however simply another way to try to find a balance between the different rights and trying to promote the goals of the declaration in a different way. How a part of society attempts to reach those goals in detail is, once again, destined to follow from their history.

"Ofcourse, you could claim again consistency is not necessary, but then you are, in fact, purely saying: you can't say that, because it's my opinion you can't say that. As we both now, however, opinions as such (thus, without argumenting them and, indeed, using logic and consistency) are nothing more then just that; mere opinions. One opinion, on itself, isn't worth anything more then the next."

That is correct, but as I said we are not talking about just one opinion on itself, far from it.

"That we do it out of reasons that we think, nay, are convinced is for the good of society does not make a distinctive difference, because ultra-rights might see it as a good thing for society too. "

If you mean fascists with ultra-rights, then you are mistaken. Fascists do not want things because they are "good for society", unless you redefine society as being a particular subclass of the population based on an arbitrary feature and no-one else besides those people. You might want to read up a bit on fascism [wikipedia.org].

"So, what IS the distinction, then? The only one remaining is this: that you allow freedom of speech. A facist state will never allow that, while a democratic one does (or at least can, as is proven by the USA)."

And a democratic state can just as well can choose not to (in the sense of absolute freedom of speech), as is proven by Europe.

"I hope you see my point: making some part of free speech illegal makes us more facist and dictatorial, instead of more democratic, while it's just that, that we wanted to avoid. "

It is most certainly true that making some part of free speech illegal moves you move towards the fascist/dictatorial side of the spectrum. In fact, when I took the test [f2s.com] at the political compass site I linked to in my previous post, I ended up in the lower left quadrant (left and libertarian), but relatively close to the center (-5, -6 or something like that on a scale of 20 iirc). I do not think that being not extreme is necessarily a bad thing (and yes, there is a difference between being undecided or having no opinion and having principles and beliefs, but not taking them to the extreme).




"Just a small nit: what your conclusion would be."

Hmm...do you mean to indicate that you *would* accept it, then? Because that was the conculsion I made (that you wouldn't accept the same reasoning, but reversed on yourself).

"I do not feel the least bit hypocrite about it."

Well, I hope you are not going to get on your high horse again, because I'm not saying you are hypocrite, but, really... there are many hypocrites who don't feel they are hypocrite. Thus, whether a person feels or not that he himself is hypocrite is by no means the proof that he isn't.

Following the actual meaning of the word, if one does not act the way one preaches (or does not accept a reasoning for himself that he himself uses on others), this constitute hypocrisy. The question whether a person himself believes or feels he is (or not), does not enter the picture.

"I've simply been looking for arguments that can show you why I feel that way and why your conclusion does not hold."

I think you mean; why you do not agree with me. My argumentation and conclusion holds, in any case better then yours, because mine is not based on opinions, while yours boil down to just that.

Basically, you are saying: well, societies aren't rational, and don't have to be. Well, if so, then you can't have anything against societies like that of the taliban, which denegrate women.

You may counterargument that that is against a basic right, but, so what? They don't have to be rational, so whether they feel it is a basic right, why should they care? In a way, you are proving my point, that, if, like you claim societies have a right to choose for theirselves, even if they are irrational, then societies have the right to chose to be racist or fundamentalist too.

"If you managed to get a powerful movement, managed to grasp power for a while and forbid eduction to a lot of people that way, I'm quite sure that afterwards draconian measures would be taken to prevent that basic right (as pretty much the entire world, from authoritarian to libertarian, has agreed) from being taken away again."

This is rather a fact, but not an argument. It would, for instance, only be true if one had not the majority of the people thinking the same. Furthermore, exactly the same could be said if the current democratic 'humanistic' movement would lose power for a while and facists take over: they would make sure draconian laws are created to make sure that forbidding 'racist talk' (and, alas, probably a lot of other 'basic rights') would never happen again.

Again, one can only conclude that the only real difference is, to let people free as much as possible, especially in the area of speech. A facist could never do that, because his power is based on limiting others with oposing views, while a true democracy can.

Your argumentation does however point to a more fundamental disagreement: though you never actually say it, I make up of what you say that you DO believe that the 'basic rights' as described in UDHR is, somehow, universal. You speak about 'evolution' as if we are or have evolved towards a goal. Alas, even in a biological sense evolution has no goal, it's just based on chance.

If nazism and facism had won and dominated the world, and they decided to create a UDHR, I'm quite sure it would encompass a whole lot of different 'basic rights' then it is today. That they didn't won is rather the result of chance (being the weakest in the conflict), not the result of evolution.

"That is correct, but as I said we are not talking about just one opinion on itself, far from it. "

Sometimes, I completely fail to see your point. We are not talking about one opinion? Well, are two opinions against one opinion better, then? Even if it are the two opinions of facists against one opinion of an anti-facist? Is a majority of opinions what makes the difference? Well then, that places us back at the hypothetical situation where the majority of opinions is against 'anti-racist' speech. Would you accept that, then? No? Then neither should a person accept it now.

" I do not think that being not extreme is necessarily a bad thing (and yes, there is a difference between being undecided or having no opinion and having principles and beliefs, but not taking them to the extreme)."

Well, this is another basic disagreement, then. I *do* think that extremism is a bad thing, and inherently so. In fact, that is proven by the fact that it doesn't matter if it's facism: communism or muslim fundamentalism are as bad, because they are extremist. EVERTHING that goes more to the extreme is a bad thing, but you are welcome if you can cite me some examples where extremism is a good thing to prove me wrong.




"Hmm...do you mean to indicate that you *would* accept it, then? Because that was the conculsion I made (that you wouldn't accept the same reasoning, but reversed on yourself)."

I simply meant that if the UDHR were drawn up by fascists in your hypothetical world and they put in that anti-racism were forbidden because it was supposedly against a fundamental right, that I would not accept it (and you found that that hypocrite, because I do accept forbidding hate speech), and that I do not think that this is hypocrite at all for the reasons explained in my previous post (and partly repeated below).

In short: fascists are against the principle of individual rights, as the state goes above everything. So any "rights" they give, are per definition never universal (since the state can change those at will for anyone and at any time). So they simply cannot draw up a UDHR, except one that states "you have no inherent individual rights". Therefore, your hypothesis is false, and my non-acceptance is not even very relevant. A better answer would have been "mu" I guess.

"Well, I hope you are not going to get on your high horse again, because I'm not saying you are hypocrite, but, really... there are many hypocrites who don't feel they are hypocrite. Thus, whether a person feels or not that he himself is hypocrite is by no means the proof that he isn't. "

Duh. That's why I tried to explain why I did not feel hypocrite, so you could see why I feel that way and could argue against it (or, who knows, agree I'm not hypocrite).

"Following the actual meaning of the word, if one does not act the way one preaches (or does not accept a reasoning for himself that he himself uses on others), this constitute hypocrisy. The question whether a person himself believes or feels he is (or not), does not enter the picture."

My belief/preaching is that there are fundamental human rights such as e.g. human dignity and personal freedom, and that any rules made that claim to protect human rights cannot be squarely aimed at the destruction of such rights.

That's why I accept banning of hate speech (it aims at protecting dignity, at a trade off with freedom and possibly other things) and not banning any speech at all (aims at protecting personal freedom, at a potential trade-off with dignity and possibly other things). It's also why I do not accept forbidding anti-racism speech (reducing personal freedom in exchange for what?) or explicitly allowing discriminatory talk (reducing dignity in exchange for what? It does not provide for extra freedom, since it was already allowed).

"My argumentation and conclusion holds, in any case better then yours, because mine is not based on opinions, while yours boil down to just that. "

I think you are misguided if you think that abstract logic (based on hypothetical situations or not) always goes above opinions based on facts in case of social issues.

"You may counterargument that that is against a basic right, but, so what? They don't have to be rational, so whether they feel it is a basic right, why should they care? In a way, you are proving my point, that, if, like you claim societies have a right to choose for theirselves, even if they are irrational, then societies have the right to chose to be racist or fundamentalist too. "

You missed my point. Maybe I didn't stress it enough in my last post, but I was almost all the time talking about the goals of the UDHR (protecting human dignity, the right not to have to live in constant fear, ... the stuff that's mentioned in the preamble). The rules of the UDHR are just general guidelines to achieve those things and sometimes trade-offs have to be made (as illustrated in the free speech debate). Which trade-off you make depends on your background and I think a society has the right to choose which trade-off they make. You examples have nothing to do with this.

"Furthermore, exactly the same could be said if the current democratic 'humanistic' movement would lose power for a while and facists take over: they would make sure draconian laws are created to make sure that forbidding 'racist talk' (and, alas, probably a lot of other 'basic rights') would never happen again. "

If they did that, they would simply do that because it can help them control the people, not because they think it's some kind of right. Fascists do not want personal freedom in any way, they think the state is much more important than the individual and that the individual should be sacrificed in favour of the state.
Since human rights per definition pertain to all human individuals, "What if fascists defined human rights?" does not make any sense, since they per definition oppose rights that pertain to all individuals. They cannot define any human right (not even the right to live), since they don't believe in the mere principle of individual rights.

"Again, one can only conclude that the only real difference is, to let people free as much as possible, especially in the area of speech. A facist could never do that, because his power is based on limiting others with oposing views, while a true democracy can."

No, the real difference between fascism and everything else (including democracy) is that inherent rights for each and all individuals are recognised at all. And that these others do this not because it strengthens the state or some arbitrary subgroup of the population, but because it is recognised as an inherent right of every human individual to have rights (yes, a right to personal rights) which cannot be arbitrarily taken away by the state as in fascism. I.e., the state is supposed to exist for the individuals, instead of the other way round.

It is true that a democracy can keep existing with opposing view (it may even need them, because I don't think there is any realistic scenario in which 2, let alone all, people voluntarily have exactly the same opinion on everything). And striving for as much personal freedom is a lofty goal. But there are always conflicting rights/benefits to be resolved and trade-offs to be made. One could even argue "A fascist state cannot afford to ban hate speech because it needs as many binding means and as much unity feeling as possible in a select group, while a democracy can do that."

"Your argumentation does however point to a more fundamental disagreement: though you never actually say it, I make up of what you say that you DO believe that the 'basic rights' as described in UDHR is, somehow, universal. "

Universal in the sense that they should apply to any and all human beings, because [insert preamble of the UDHR] and I have not seen any counter argument as to why the preamble would be wrong (contains false statements, inconsistencies, illogical things, you name it). Not because they per definition are or because that document sums them up. Do you you think that it should be possible that not everyone has the right to life? (and I don't mean you personally, I mean you the impartial one). That not everyone has a right to personal dignity? To live in peace as opposed to constant fear/terror? That people have the right to have personal rights at all?

My hunch is that your answer will be along the lines of "I don't know" or "that's not for me to decide", since as soon as you answer yes or no, you take a moral stand one way or the other and suddenly are not impartial anymore. But then what is your goal with being impartial? Is it a goal on its own? And while you may see other people's view as limited because they accept some opinions as valuable in the course of decision making, can't you see that it's possible that you yourself are also limited (in another way obviously) by refusing to take that information into account? (based on the argument and that in an alternate universe, that information may not be true or even be the reverse)

We do live in this world as it is, and it's that world our decisions have an impact on. We can only know for sure what has happened here (and then still only partially) and learn from that. Society is not something you can predict based on pure logic, and therefore also not steer based on pure logic. Not wanting to make any moral judgement whatsoever about anything is a serious handicap when deciding on social issues I think, just like an autist can sometimes be very smart and yet miss out on an awful lot of things (especially as far as social matters are concerned).

"You speak about 'evolution' as if we are or have evolved towards a goal. Alas, even in a biological sense evolution has no goal, it's just based on chance."

Darwin argues it's based on survival. Anyway, I meant that that declaration of rights was based on the experience gained from everything that had happened before. One way to describe this process is to look at it as all that previous knowledge evolving into something that combines it. I was merely figuratively speaking.

"If nazism and facism had won and dominated the world, and they decided to create a UDHR, I'm quite sure it would encompass a whole lot of different 'basic rights' then it is today. That they didn't won is rather the result of chance (being the weakest in the conflict), not the result of evolution. "

As I've said before, they would not create such a declaration, since they don't accept the notion of individual rights (that would actually be the best case, the worst case would be a declaration that simply said "you have no inherent rights"). I don't know whether evolution has anything to do with whether or not nazism or fascism never became the strongest force (from a certain point they are inherently weak, since they are both built upon the principle of "us against everyone else"), but that was not what I was saying nor what I was thinking about.

Of course, we only have a sample size of one as far as "the human population" of the world is concerned. But until you can argue that the drafters and subscribers to the UDHR as we know it are wrong in asserting that e.g. "recognition of the inherent dignity and of the equal and inalienable rights of all members of the human family is the foundation of freedom, justice and peace in the world", I think that may very well be simply true.

Unless you also question the mere principle of striving for freedom, justice and peace above, in which case I suppose you won't/don't/can't/mu argue them.

"That is correct, but as I said we are not talking about just one opinion on itself, far from it.

Sometimes, I completely fail to see your point. We are not talking about one opinion? Well, are two opinions against one opinion better, then? Even if it are the two opinions of facists against one opinion of an anti-facist? Is a majority of opinions what makes the difference? Well then, that places us back at the hypothetical situation where the majority of opinions is against 'anti-racist' speech. Would you accept that, then? No? Then neither should a person accept it now."

Maybe I should have said "We are not talking about just *an* opinion on itself", i.e. an opinion in the void. I simply wanted to say it's a an incredibly extensively argued opinion with lots of supporting facts (as in historic evidence) to back it up. And apart from that, it was also drafted by people coming from societies with entirely different views.

"I do not think that being not extreme is necessarily a bad thing (and yes, there is a difference between being undecided or having no opinion and having principles and beliefs, but not taking them to the extreme).

Well, this is another basic disagreement, then. I *do* think that extremism is a bad thing, and inherently so. "

I think you misread my sentence, sorry for the confusing double negation (or even tripple negation if you also count "bad").

"In fact, that is proven by the fact that it doesn't matter if it's facism: communism or muslim fundamentalism are as bad, because they are extremist. EVERTHING that goes more to the extreme is a bad thing, but you are welcome if you can cite me some examples where extremism is a good thing to prove me wrong."

Well, I think you are pretty extreme in not accepting any opinion or social evidence whatsoever, regardless of the supporting facts. I also think that considering free speech per definition the ultimate right that should trump all others (and citing opinions of courts and society when making your case, while consistently disregarding all opinions I provide to you) is quite an extreme position.

Maybe you are trying to be too neutral, resulting in an extreme neutral position? Just a thought, but maybe the diagram on the political compass site needs a third axis :)




I think we have some basic differences in perceprtion on things, where we both think we are being illogical...or where you think logic doesn't matter very much, I dunno. If you really think this:

"I think you are misguided if you think that abstract logic (based on hypothetical situations or not) always goes above opinions based on facts in case of social issues. "

Then, in essence, you say that in social issues, an opinion of one group inherently can go above the opinions of another, even when there is no logic or rationality behind it. I think this is a basic misconception, and even if it WERE true, then it means that whatever group has the power could rightfully claim it is the way based on their opinions, without having to argument them logically.

I do not think this to be correct, for the simple reason that every group imaginable always tries to give their rationale for it, they always argument it, and they always strive to be consistent (even when they are not, or being pseudo-rational/scientific, at least they try to convey it that way.

So, while I agree societies are not always being logical and consistent, when it comes to governing and laws, I think one DOES not to strive for consistency.

Saying that is not necessary, also means another group with oposing ideas do not have to show any logic, that their opinion is, in principle, enough, whether they can argument it in a correct way or not. I would claim that in most cases, facist/racist/etc. ideologies show a far greater degree of a lack of consystency and illogic, which is yet another defining difference that can be used to show they are incorrect. Given the choice between demonstrating they are wrong, and muffling them up (with obvious little results, seen the progress of ultra-right in Europe), it is more democratic to chose for the first. And a democracy should always strive to be more democratic, not less.

You're axis does not make it that any better, it merely shows it's a step in wrong direction. While you seem to accept that step for a perceived benifit of peace, I don't. It's like the patriot act in the USA: meant for protecting the US against those evil muslims that want to create a fundamentalistic muslimstate all over the world. Well, a few more of those terror attacks, and a few more of these laws later, and what ARE you protecting, at the end? Not the free and democratic country, that's for sure. What use is it, in an efort to protect oneself, to become a policestate of your own?

In a similar way you are going the wrong way, when you try to shut up people, that are, in your opinion, against 'basic human rights'. What you end up with, is being more the way that those people would be, and if you think those people are doing the wrong thing, then you shouldn't be trying to go that way neither.

"Well, I think you are pretty extreme in not accepting any opinion or social evidence whatsoever, regardless of the supporting facts."

Well...ermm..I didn't see no evidence, just opinions. Social evidence of what, exactly? That societies can be irratic and illogical and inconsistent when making laws? Well, I agree with that, but I don't draw the same conclusions of it that you seem to do (see above). What supporting facts? That a lot of dudes with the best intentions drew up a list of basic huma rights? I agree with that too, but you fail to provide any evidence demonstrating that this makes it somehow universal in nature.

If those rights were made up 1000 years ago, having slaves would probably have been a basic right, because most societies in the world accepted that practice, then. History does not prove that most of these basic rights are universal in nature (though for some behaviour and laws, like those against incest, there are indeed valid arguments to make a case it is universal). If they are not universal, they reflect merely an opinion (even if it may be a general one) of people in a given time-frame.

If it are only opinions, then they can't be, on themselves, be enough to have more sway then any other opinion, unless one claims that opinions are always right when a majority says they are. But in that case, when the majority would decide something else is against basic rights, which you would feel strongly about, they would have that right too.

Hmm...well, said that before. :-)

I accept opinions, but only as opinions. If they want to have more sway then any other opinion, they have to be argumented logically. If one does not accept logic, then what's the point? There is a good quote about that I once read in a book about my favorite (intellectual) writer, Carl Sagan, though it originally was of someone else. I'll look it up and place it on my blog, sometime.




"Then, in essence, you say that in social issues, an opinion of one group inherently can go above the opinions of another, even when there is no logic or rationality behind it."

I said "opinions based on facts", as in historical evidence. There is logic and rationality behind it (disrespect for the human rights they mention has resulted in great tragedies, while respect for them hasn't -> it seems logical to demand some basic respect for those rights etc), but a conclusion always contains some form of opinion, unless you are working with maths.

"Saying that is not necessary, also means another group with oposing ideas do not have to show any logic, that their opinion is, in principle, enough, whether they can argument it in a correct way or not."

I never claimed you don't have to show any logic, I simply said you can't use only logic. And at some level it even is logical that we in Europe banned hate speech, given that we saw what it indirectly led to (regardless of what courts have said, speech is a very powerful weapon if used properly). It may not be impartial or without moral prejudice, but that's something else.

"Given the choice between demonstrating they are wrong, and muffling them up (with obvious little results, seen the progress of ultra-right in Europe), it is more democratic to chose for the first. And a democracy should always strive to be more democratic, not less."

Have you seen the progress of extreme right in the US? They've been governing the whole thing for the last 4 years! I do not think banning of hate speech as such has a large impact on the progress or deterring of extreme right. I do think it can have a profound influence on the living quality of some minorities. Most importantly however, I'm convinced that in the case of Europe, it's an extremely strong symbolical thing, which makes it no longer "a ban on hate speech as such" but "a ban on hate speech with a further symbolic effect". See below for more on this.
You're axis does not make it that any better, it merely shows it's a step in wrong direction.

It moves us slightly more to the center (slightly, because as I said it's a trade-off of one basic human right for another). I thought you were the one that was against extremes? Keep in mind that the bottom is total anarchy.

"While you seem to accept that step for a perceived benefit of peace, I don't."

I never said that. Really. What I said is that it is a symbolic action of society, to show that (at that period in time) people were willing to sacrifice part of their freedom (of speech) in order to try to do something to help preventing such atrocities from happening again. It's a symbol, plain and simple.

I also said that tearing down that symbol in the name of logic and consistency would have effects going much farther that what logic would dictate. It would not be the same as never having had a ban on hate speech.

"It's like the patriot act in the USA: meant for protecting the US against those evil muslims that want to create a fundamentalistic muslimstate all over the world. Well, a few more of those terror attacks, and a few more of these laws later, and what ARE you protecting, at the end? Not the free and democratic country, that's for sure. What use is it, in an efort to protect oneself, to become a policestate of your own?"

That's the stepping stone theory, which has proven to be false as far as the banning of hate speech in Europe is concerned. In the US, the terrorist attacks are merely used as an excuse by those in power to to get more and more power. I don't think you can say that of the banning of hate speech in Europe after WWII.

"Well...ermm..I didn't see no evidence, just opinions. Social evidence of what, exactly? "

Name one large conflict/war in history that was caused by general respect for human rights (from the UDHR) from both sides. And how many atrocities in history did not involve violating human rights?

"I agree with that too, but you fail to provide any evidence demonstrating that this makes it somehow universal in nature. If those rights were made up 1000 years ago, having slaves would probably have been a basic right, because most societies in the world accepted that practice, then. History does not prove that most of these basic rights are universal in nature (though for some behaviour and laws, like those against incest, there are indeed valid arguments to make a case it is universal). If they are not universal, they reflect merely an opinion (even if it may be a general one) of people in a given time-frame. "

You are misinterpreting the meaning of "universal" in the UDHR. It does not mean that it is so by law of nature or so, it means that those rights apply in all situations/universally (and again, not because it simply is that way per definition or law of nature, but because that's the whole point of having the declaration at all) to all human beings (instead of just to some subgroup), and that they cannot be taken away by the state.

"If it are only opinions, then they can't be, on themselves, be enough to have more sway then any other opinion, unless one claims that opinions are always right when a majority says they are. But in that case, when the majority would decide something else is against basic rights, which you would feel strongly about, they would have that right too. "

You are the one that keeps saying that the only way to justify it is that it's a majority opinion, not me. It has to do with uniting conflicting opinions from around the round the world (which is independent of having a majority, but which is a sign that it is well reasoned if the end result is not some mumbo-jumbo compromise that does not mean anything) and (more important to you) basing yourself on historic evidence.

"I accept opinions, but only as opinions. If they want to have more sway then any other opinion, they have to be argumented logically."

You still have not shown one place where the preamble of the UDHR argues illogically.




"You are the one that keeps saying that the only way to justify it is that it's a majority opinion, not me."

No, I don't and didn't. What I have been saying is, that, if you accept that a majority justifies laws against hate-speech, it justifies laws against anti-hate speech too.

"It does not mean that it is so by law of nature or so, it means that those rights apply in all situations/universally"

Indeed, and that's my point exactly: they do not show that. Slavery, for instance, was a very common accepted practise, at one time. Yet, in the current timeframe, it would be considered fundamental against human basic rights.

"There is logic and rationality behind it (disrespect for the human rights they mention has resulted in great tragedies, while respect for them hasn't -> it seems logical to demand..."

If you are of the opinion that something is a tragedy. I doubt the nazi's would have found it a tragedy if all jews were killed in concentrationcamps.

Now, while you claimed consistency does not make a law/policy stronger, I claim it does. It doesn't make it 'better', because that means giving it a subjective value, and that depends on one's views.

Therefor, a reasoning that has consistency, even if one does not agree with, is stronger then the same kind of reasoning without it. I think this is always true: I can't think of any reasoning that gets stronger when it has more internal contradictions in it.

Thus, consistency DOES make an argument stronger, though it doesn't give us 'good' (in the sense of ethical) reasonings. But what, then, can one use for ethical guidelines? IMHO, (I was gonna say that in my blog, but...seems difficult not to be further drawn into this discussion) it is, again, logic that can lead us to it.

A basic principle of Kants' philosophy, was that you shouldn't do to others what you wouldn't want them to do to you. It is as simple as elegant in it's logic and almost undisputable as a good ethical guideline, and that's why I think, personally, that allmost all basic rights in the UDHR are 'good'. Contrary to you, however, I'm still well aware that, ultimately, this is an opinion. Somebody can perfectly be of the opinion that killing blacks because of their color of skin is not against a basic human right, because -again in his opinion - niggers are sub-human, and thus, fall outside the scope of human basic rights. You see how easily it is to make a case like that if opinions differ, regardless of the so-called universal application that you claim can be found in history. (If anything, history shows us as much genocides as anything else).

However, and here comes the logic into the game again, when you claim *that*, you should also accept the claim of black people saying it's right to kill whites because they are subhuman. If you don't accept that, then you are clearly talking crap, and your argumentation has no validity.

Thus, reversing the reasoning on yourself (and one's opinion if it is 'right', then ) is the way to determine if something is ethical correct, even when opinions differ.

That's why I extensively asked you the question (not sure if I ever got a clear answer, though ;-) whether you would accept it, if things were reversed. I don't think you would, which makes it ethical dubious at best.

I however, am fully prepared to let another person speak his mind; I have no problems with reversing my reasoning on myself, and thus, I do find, indeed, this reasoning not only stronger in consistency, but also better in an ethical way.


Conclusion:

As we can see in this, originally /., discussion, sometimes it is difficult to get to agree on something, if not downright impossible. It has nothing to do with intelligence; Halo1 is, IMHO, a pretty intelligent guy; I have been impressed with his posts about software-patents and there a rational mind was clearly at work.

Neither are my friends lacking in intelligence, yet, almost exactly the same discussion evolved some of them too, as can be seen in 'Outlawing books'. I am glad to say, however, that at least one of them seems to have turned 180° and thus, recently stupified me with saying and argumenting the same things I had done before, but to which he had objected.

He didn't seem to remember it, but I delude myself in thinking maybe it was thanks to my logical debate that he changed his mind. :-)


Now, the main problem here, and, in fact, the only one, is the question whether you accept logic and rationality as the determining factor to discuss a reasoning/argument or not.

If not, then fine: I'll won't use it neither, and we both sprout mere opinions.

If you do, then we can have a meaningful discussion and look at which reasoning holds more sway.


In this discussion with Halo1, the main culprits why we can't seem to come to a conclusion in this regard, is because:

1)he accepts the UDHR as something that is universal in the sense that "it means that those rights apply in all situations/universally" , while I do not.

He claims to find proof in history for that, but I see rather the opposite. This may seem as a standoff, but a theory does only last as long as *no* observations dispute it. In the case of history, there are examples that would support the theory that those rights in the UDHR are universal, but there are also those (like the example of slavery) which clearly shows it doesn't. The moment you have an exeption, you can't claim it is universal.

If one accepts that, one also has to accept that the UDHR is not universal. And if it has no universal value, it is based on opinions. If it's based on opinions, then it has no more sway then any other opinion(s), whether it was decided by majority, by broad world consensus, by power, by good intentions, by the deep thoughts of different people of differnet countries: it still remains an opinion.

Now, Halo1 rightfully says: but it is logically argumented! (Hopefully indicating that logic is, indeed, of great importance in the matter :-) While yes, it is...but only if you accept the basic premisses it begins with, which are based on current ideas on dignity and peace and all that. He asks to demonstrate where the UDHR is being unrational, but, since I agree with the principles, *I* have a difficult time argumenting that.

However, I could imagine a fascist or other extremist, deciding the goals of the UDHR themselves are not enterily right. He could argue, for instance, that 'peace' and 'dignity' only is relevant to humans, and that, in his opinion, jews/niggers/etc. are not human, and thus fall outside the basic human rights.

Thus, it is easily to demonstrate that whatever opinion you base yourself on, an argument can't be won by having that opinion. For a facist/extremist saying 'but it says so in the UDHR' can have no more sway, then when someone is trying to alter my opinion by saying 'but it says so in the bible'..which means, very little, thus. ;-) The argumentation in the UDHR may be consistent, but is based on the view that all humans have basic rights, which is an opinion of it's own, which may not be agreed on by fascists.

So, is there no way to determine if something is 'right', then? I think there is, as I've showed in my last post. You can't truelly debabe something meaningfull, if all your opinions are diametrically opposed. Therefor, what you have to do is find a common opinion, and work on that further.

A common opinion would be, that you can't be hypocritical in your own argument. Another would be, that one opinion, on its own, is not worth more then another.

One could not agree to even that, ofcourse, but the advantage is, that if they don't (have to) agree to these opinions, neither do you, which will end you both with mere opinions anyhow. The quote I once read in a Carl Sagan book describes this point very well, and I'll try to look it up and place it in my blog.


When people do start from this basic common ground, one can go further, for instance, in the line of Kants' philosophy as I've described earlier. As an ethical guideline: 'Do not do to others what you wouldn't want them to do to you' is as basic as it gets, and from there on you can decide on a whole lot of ethical arguments/debates/laws, including forbidding some forms of speech. Just ask yourself: "Would I feel it is right, that something I feel strongly about, but is against an opinion I do not agree with (and yes, even the UDHR could be considered that) is forbidden for me to say?"

That's why I asked Halo1 what his reaction would be, if his own reasoning would be reversed against him. If he would say 'no', then it would indicate that he would do something to others, which he wouldn't want them to do to himself, which makes the ethical value of such an argumentation very dubious.